Arbeitsblatt: FCE Prüfung Englisch

PAPER 3 USE OF ENGLISH GENERAL DESCRIPTION STRUCTURE AND TASKS Paper format The paper contains five parts. PART 1 Timing 1 hour 15 minutes. No. of parts 5. Task type and focus Multiple-choice cloze. Emphasis on vocabulary. No. of questions 65. Format modified cloze test containing 15 gaps and followed by 15 four-option multiple-choice items. Task types Multiple-choice cloze, open cloze, key word transformations, error correction, word formation. No. of Qs 15. Answer format Candidates may write on the question paper, but must transfer their answers to the separate answer sheet within the time limit. Candidates indicate their answers by shading the correct lozenges or writing the required word or words in box on the answer sheet. Marks Parts 1, 2, 4 and 5 – each correct answer receives 1 mark. Part 3 – each answer receives up to 2 marks. PART 2 Task type and focus Open cloze. Grammar and vocabulary. Format modified cloze test containing 15 gaps. No. of Qs 15. PART 3 Task type and focus Key word transformations. Grammar and vocabulary. Format 10 separate items, each with lead-in sentence and gapped second sentence to be completed in 2 to 5 words, one of which is given ‘key word. No. of Qs 10. PART 4 Task type and focus Error correction. Emphasis on grammar. Format text containing errors. Some lines are correct but most contain an extra incorrect word which must be identified. No. of Qs 15. PART 5 28 c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is Task type and focus Word formation. Vocabulary. Format text containing 10 gaps. Each gap corresponds to word. The stems of the missing words are given beside the text and must be changed to form the missing word. No. of Qs 10. The five parts of the Use of English paper PART 1 – MULTIPLE-CHOICE CLOZE In this part there is an emphasis on vocabulary. Sample task and answer key: pages 32 and 35. PART 3 – KEY WORD TRANSFORMATIONS The focus of this part is grammar and vocabulary. Sample questions and answer key: pages 33 and 35. Each answer in Part 3 receives up to 2 marks. Part 3 consists of ten key word transformations (plus an example). Each question contains three parts: lead-in Each correct answer in Part 1 receives 1 mark. sentence, key word, and second sentence of which only the beginning and end are given. Candidates have to fill the gap in the second sentence so that the completed sentence is similar Part 1 consists of text in which there are 15 gaps (plus one gap as an example). Each gap represents missing word or phrase. The text is followed by 15 sets of four words or phrases in meaning to the lead-in sentence. The answer must be between two and five words, one of which must be the key word. The key word must not be changed in any way. (A, B, C, D), each set corresponding to gap. Candidates have to choose which one of the four words or phrases in the set In this part of the paper wide range of structures such as fills the gap correctly. reported speech, passive voice, conditionals, verb tenses and modals is tested. In addition, phrasal verbs and lexical phrases Different types of words are tested in this part. Sometimes it is such as ‘to look forward to –ing may also be tested. necessary to choose between words with similar meaning, e.g. choosing ‘leaking rather than ‘spilling, ‘pouring, ‘flowing to Each answer in Part 3 is worth 2 marks. The mark scheme fill the gap in ‘The roof of our tent was At other times it will splits the answer into two parts and candidates gain one mark be necessary not simply to know the meaning but also to for each part which is correct. know which word is correct because of the preposition, adverb or verb form which follows, e.g. choosing ‘interested rather PART 4 – ERROR CORRECTION than ‘keen, ‘enthusiastic, ‘eager to fill the gap in ‘You may be in applying for this job. This part of the paper also tests collocations, such as ‘to pay attention to, and linking phrases such as ‘even if. Phrasal verbs are also tested here. They may be tested in three different ways; the whole of the phrasal verb, e.g. ‘keep on, just the verb itself, e.g. ‘keep, or just the preposition or adverb which follows the verb, e.g. ‘on. PART 2 – OPEN CLOZE The focus of this part is grammar. Sample task and answer key: pages 34 and 35. Each correct answer in Part 4 receives 1 mark. Part 4 consists of text which resembles something that student at this level might have written. The text consists of The focus of this part is grammar and vocabulary. seventeen lines, most of which contain an error of the sort typically made by learners at FCE level, e.g. incorrect verb Sample task and answer key: pages 33 and 35. forms, wrong pronouns, prepositions and articles. Candidates must write on their answer sheet the word which Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 1 mark. is wrong. However, certain number of lines do not contain an error and in these cases candidates must put tick () on their answer sheet. The absence or misuse of capital letters is Part 2 also consists of text in which there are 15 gaps (plus ignored, although spelling must be correct. one gap as an example). However, in this part, as there are no sets of words from which to choose the answers, candidates The first two lines of the text are examples: one of the lines have to think of word which will fill the gap correctly. The will be correct; the other will contain an error. There are answer will always be single word, never phrase. In some fifteen lines which are tested. cases, there may be more than one possible answer and this is allowed for in the mark scheme. The absence or misuse of capital letters and punctuation is ignored, although spelling, as in all parts of the test, must be correct. c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is 29 PART 5 – WORD FORMATION Encourage your students to plan their time carefully and not spend too long on any one part of the test. They should try In this part there is an emphasis on vocabulary. to make sure that they have few minutes at the end of the test to check through their answers. They can do the various Sample task and answer key: page 35. parts of the test in any order, but it is probably better to do them in the order of the question paper so as to avoid the Each correct answer in Part 5 receives 1 mark. possibility of putting answers in the wrong sections of the answer sheet. Part 5 consists of text in which there are ten gaps plus one By part gapped line as an example. There is one gap per line. At the PART 1 end of each line, and separated from the text, there is word in capital letters. Candidates have to produce new word Give your students practice in recognising the differences based on this word which can be correctly inserted in the gap in meaning between similar words, e.g. ‘cut and ‘tear. They in the line. should try to learn whole phrases as well as individual words in context, and they should be aware that knowing the grammatical patterns and collocations of words is as Preparation important as knowing their meaning. Remind your students to make sure the answer they choose General fits into the sentence. They should not choose their answer There is title to all of the texts in the paper. This is meant they need to read the words which follow as well. It is to give candidates an early idea of what to expect from the sometimes the case that preposition or adverb which follows text. Encourage your students to read through the whole of the gap determines which of the options is correct. text so that they have clear idea of what it is about, before they begin to answer any of the questions. Once they have done this, they should begin answering the questions. Each part of the test has an example towards the beginning (two examples in the case of Part 4). Students should get used to reading these to help them understand what they have to do. Remind them that in the examination they must not write the answer to the example on their answer sheet. Sometimes candidates may think that more than one simply after reading the words which come before the gap; Get your students used to reading all the options for any question before deciding which one fills the gap correctly, and remind them that they should never choose more than one option as the answer. Make your students aware that it is important that the line they make in the lozenge on the answer sheet for each answer is firm and clear and done in pencil. PART 2 answer is possible to certain questions. Advise them not to As in Part 1, candidates need to read the words which give more than one answer as this may result in their losing follow the gap as well as those which come before it. Tell your marks. If they do give two or more answers and all are students that they should make sure that if they are filling the acceptable, they will, of course, be awarded the mark. gap with verb it agrees with its subject. However, if they give more than one answer and one of them is wrong, they will lose the mark. Sometimes candidates may decide that the answer they have written is wrong and wish to change it. If this happens in Part 1, they will need to rub out the mark they have made in the lozenge. In Parts 2, 3, 4 and 5, they should clearly cross or rub out the word or words. They should not try altering the word itself as this will make it unclear. They should not put Remind your students to keep in mind sense of the whole text. Make your students aware that they must use only one word to fill each of the gaps. They should not fill any of the gaps with contraction (e.g. didnt, hell), when these count as two words, and they should never use abbreviations (e.g. ‘sthg for ‘something). the word in brackets as it will appear to be an alternative. PART 3 Give your students practice in completing the answer sheet. In preparing for this part of the paper, give your students When transferring answers to the answer sheet, they must be practice in paraphrase. This might include rewriting sentences careful to make sure that they put the answer by the from texts, saying things again ‘in other words, as well as appropriate question number. working on lexical synonyms and grammatical Make your students aware that correct spelling is essential in all parts of the paper. Remind your students that handwriting should be clear so that it can be read easily by the markers. 30 c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is transformations. In the examination, they must make sure that the answer makes the second sentence mean the same as the lead-in sentence. Remind your students that the answer must consist of two, Sometimes the missing word will need to be in the plural, three, four or five words. If candidates write more than five and sometimes it will need to be in negative form. The sense words they will not be awarded the marks. of the text around the gap will help candidates decide if it is Remind your students that they must use the key word in necessary to put the word in the plural or to make it negative. their answer and they must not change it in any way. If they Make your students aware that answers will not always do not use it or if they alter it, they will not be awarded the need only prefixes or suffixes to be added to word; marks. sometimes they will need to make internal changes (e.g. ‘long Make sure your students pay careful attention to any verb to ‘length). in the final part of the second sentence as it will often indicate Remind your students that the base word at the end of each whether to use singular or plural noun in the key. line applies only to that line. They must not try to form word Remind your students that when writing their answers, they should not write the whole or parts of the second from that base word in any other line. In every case the base word at the end of the line will have to be changed. sentence; they should write only the words that are needed to fill the gap. When they are counting the words, students should remember that, as in Part 2, they must count contracted words (with the exception of ‘cant ‘cannot) as the full form (e.g. ‘didnt 2 words ‘did not). PART 4 Students can practise for this part by reading through their own work and that of their peers, trying to identify errors. Students should practise reading the text slowly and carefully as it is very easy to overlook the addition or omission of small words, such as ‘a or ‘of. Remind your students that they must indicate correct line by putting tick () in the box on their answer sheet. They must not leave the box blank as it will be assumed that they have simply not attempted this item. A sentence may be spread over several lines. Encourage your students to read the whole sentence before deciding that word is wrong. Sometimes it will not be apparent that word early in sentence is wrong until the whole of the sentence has been read. Remind your students that they must be sure that word they choose as being an error is actually wrong and not simply word which is not vital to the meaning of the sentence but which is nevertheless appropriate. There will never be two wrong words in one line. Remind your students that the correct lines can appear in any line of the text, including the first and last tested lines. PART 5 Students should be made aware of the range of words which can be formed from the same base word, e.g. ‘compete, ‘competition, ‘competitor, ‘competitive, ‘competitively, and the negative forms of these words, e.g. ‘uncompetitive. In the examination when they see the ‘base word at the end of line, they must not automatically write related word which they know well as their answer. They need to read the surrounding sentence to decide what the missing word is. c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is 31 32 0 far distant remote distinct TWO CREATURES OF THE PAST – MAMMOTHS AND MASTODONS c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is – sa p e pa e 0102/3 S03 the climate at that time which (15) . to their disappearance. mammoth (12) . suggest that it was particular (13) . of over-hunting by humans, and (14) . in We do not know why mastodons (11) . extinct. However, computer studies of the decrease in mammoths mainly ate grass on the plains, mastodons (10) . to eat twigs and leaves. relatives called the mastodon. Like mammoths, mastodons may also have had hairy coat, but (9) . thousands of years earlier, in the woodlands of eastern North America, lived another of the elephants To most of us, mammoths are probably the most (8) . of the elephants extinct relatives, but good use, protecting the mammoths young from other animals, and brushing away snow. biggest teeth of any known creature, some (6) . length of five metres. These tusks were (7) . to mammoths tusks – its two enormous teeth – out of the ice to sell them. Mammoth tusks are the immediately ran (4) . in terror, but several days later he (5) . the courage to return and cut the ice, he could (2) . see the shape of massive, hairy mammoth, apparently (3) . at him. He walking along the banks of the River Lena in Siberia (1) startling discovery. Peering into wall of 15,000 years ago people painted pictures of them on cave walls. Then, astonishingly, in 1799, man The elephant has some (0) . relatives called mammoths, which lived in the Stone Age. More than 0 Example: Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet. For questions 1-15, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, or D) best fits each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). Part 1 2 7 15 14 13 12 led transformations addition quantities turned 11 when preferred usual held reaching grew across watching out rather made 10 9 6 8 5 4 3 2 1 caused adjustments combination amounts went enjoyed while frequent put increasing felt out looking out quite took 0102/3 S03 3 guided diversions attachment totals became desired as regular set expanding experienced away looking after well did influenced changes [Turn over connection numbers came selected even familiar kept completing found past watching over just had PAPER 3: USE OF ENGLISH Part 1 (Questions 1–15) 0 DEVELOPMENTS IN UNDERWATER DIVING since 0102/3 S03 (29) rid of these tubes and carry (30) own air with them in cylinders. the surface through tubes. Divers gained even (28) freedom of movement when they could up (27) leather jacket with metal helmet over the head into which air was pumped down from However, (26) divers want to move freely underwater, they require suit. Early suits were made for underwater work, (25) as building the foundations of bridges. supply of air coming through leather tubes. Something similar, made of steel, is (24) use today was small wooden room with an open bottom, glass windows at the top to (23) in light, and In 1717, the first practical diving machine, or ‘diving bell (22) it was called, was invented. This It was not (21) the beginning of the 18th century that more advanced equipment was developed. breathe underwater. early (19) of diving machine, and Aristotle talked about apparatus (20) permitted divers to (17) two thousand years. Alexander the Great (18) said to have gone underwater in an air, and so permitting them to stay underwater for long periods of time, have been tried for well mainly went underwater to search (16) pearls or sponges. Various ways of supplying divers with since ancient times. In those days, divers People have been diving without mechanical aids (0) . Example: You must . instructions exactly. carry You must do exactly what the manager tells you. carry out the managers 0102/3 S03 We mended the roof . not make nests in it. so 34 We mended the roof to prevent the birds from making nests in it. The company . the new computer system. should 33 It was mistake for the company to install the new computer system. This motorway . 100 kilometres. being 32 They are extending this motorway by 100 kilometres. My daughter wishes . all her savings on that car. she 31 My daughter regrets spending all her savings on that car. Write only the missing words on the separate answer sheet. 0 The space can be filled by the words ‘carry out the managers, so you write: 0 Example: [Turn over For questions 31-40, complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given. Here is an example (0). For questions 16-30, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers on the separate answer sheet. 5 Part 3 4 Part 2 PAPER 3: USE OF ENGLISH Parts 2/3 (Questions 16–34) c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is – sa p e pa e 33 34 WHERE GREW UP been When was young, lived in place called Coromandel in 00 0 c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is – sa p e pa e 0102/3 S03 49 any. My sister and had no many cares at all. We went to the village It . the windows today because its going to rain. 0102/3 S03 55 like doing nothing better than to go back to relive my memories. 54 but it was peaceful town when was child, and would 53 long to do it. Coromandel is large and busy tourist resort now, 52 around the town, although we didnt really have clue how 51 Out of school hours, we looked after lots animals on the farms 50 school, which together was attended by just twenty children of all ages. 48 have preferred paying money, of course, but they simply didnt have 47 in sheep, pigs, hens and, occasionally, the pieces of gold. He would 46 place. My father was doctor, and people would pay to him 45 my family have arrived. By then it had become very run-down 44 had been busy gold-mining town, but that was long before worth 40 shouldnt bother to clean the windows today because its going to rain. Would . much noise – Im trying to get some work done. mind 43 uncomplicated then and Coromandel was magical place. It 42 of that period as the happiest time of my life. My life was much Pauline is . solve her financial problems. 39 Id rather you made less noise – Im trying to get some work done. 41 weeks old, and lived there until was fourteen years. still think 00 New Zealand. was been taken there by my parents when was few 0 Examples: [Turn over For questions 41-55, read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have word which should not be there. If line is correct, put tick () by the number on the separate answer sheet. If line has word which should not be there, write the word on the separate answer sheet. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00). Part 4 7 effort 38 Pauline isnt trying to solve her financial problems at all. There . left by the time we arrived at the theatre. hardly 37 By the time we arrived at the theatre, nearly all the seats had been taken. Matthew cant . him if something goes wrong. rely 36 Matthew cant be sure that Alex will help him if something goes wrong. Im afraid . to go shopping this morning. too 35 Im afraid dont have time to go shopping this morning. 6 PAPER 3: USE OF ENGLISH Parts 3/4 (Questions 35–55) LIKE STRONG ADDITION ENERGY Bread, (62) some popular foods which are not particularly good for you, gives (63) to bones and teeth when they are developing and keeps them healthy as we get older. (64) bread helps us to feel (65) as it contains iron as well as several essential vitamins. PART THREE PART FOUR 11 26 if 12 27 of 52 13 28 more/greater 53 long 14 29 get 54 town 15 30 their 55 doing 0102/3 S03 REQUIRE our daily protein (61) from just six slices of bread. 32 is being extended (by) 42 much 57 various 3 18 is/was 33 should not have installed 43 58 importance 4 19 kind/type/sort 34 44 59 growth 5 20 that/which so (that) (the) birds would/could 45 have 60 third 35 (that) Im too busy 46 to 61 requirement(s) 36 rely on Alex to help 47 the 62 unlike 37 were hardly any seats 48 paying 63 strength 38 making no effort to 49 many 64 Additionally 39 you mind not making so 50 together 65 energetic 40 isnt worth cleaning 51 lots such THREE over 25 and for adults to stay fit and well. We can get (60) of 17 GROW in Bread contains nearly all the protein needed for childrens (59) 2 24 IMPORTANT childhood let should not forget the (58) of eating plenty of bread. 56 as VARY years until/till And, of course, there are (57) good medical reasons why we 41 CHILD 10 PART TWO the little bakery that my grandfather owned. (that) she hadnt spent 23 bread, it reminds me of my early (56) when used to visit 31 LOVE for 22 lover of bread. Whenever smell freshly baked Im great (0) 16 21 BREAD lover 1 0 PART ONE Example: 9 There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers on the separate answer sheet. 8 For questions 56-65, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form word that fits in the space in the same line. 7 Part 5 6 8 PAPER 3: USE OF ENGLISH Part 5 (Questions 56–65) and answer keys PART FIVE c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is – sa p e pa e a d ns e k ys 35 PAPER 3: USE OF ENGLISH Answer sheet 36 c e a i at o pa e 3 use f n l is – ns e s e t